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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 08:03

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Help. I’m 16 and just got spanked by both of my parents for taking the car. What do I do? I want to run off somewhere but I’m so scared that I’ll get spanked again. I’ve never gotten the paddle before and I’m still scared to sit

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are details for questions here on Quora so limited? I have an account here on Quora and Yahoo Answers. I like discussing different subjects.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Should parents be allowed to bring children into R-rated movies? What are the potential consequences of doing so?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.